Would it ever be the case that the significance tests of the regression coefficients would come out non-significant when the overall F-test did come out significant? What if, for example, you had a factor with three levels, A, B, and C, with means 3, 5, and 4. If C is the reference level, could it be the case in the regression model that neither the coefficient comparing A to C nor the coefficient comparing B to C would be significantly different from 0, but that the F-statistic would be significant due to the difference between A and B?
Thank you very much for your reply!
1) For experiment 1, both data sets that failed the normality test (p= and p=) are not symmetric, according to the box plot. Therefore, a nonparametric test should be used for the analysis, right?
2) For experiment 2, there are two experimental groups. I only have three values for each group. The data for group A are: , , (normality test P<). The data for group B are: , , (normality test P=). The results from t-test (p=) and Mann-Whitney Rank sum test (p=) are very different.